Day and Date : Sunday, 5th January, 2014
Duration: 1 Hour 30 Minutes
Time: 10.00 a.m. to 11.30 a.m.
Total Marks : 100
This is to certify that, the entries of PGD-CET Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly Instructions to Candidates
1. The Question Booklet has one seal sticker. Examinee should open the seal at 10.00 a.m.
2. This question booklet contains 100 Objective Type Questions (Single Best Response Type MCQ) in the subjects of BDS.
3. The Question Paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheets are issued to examinees separately at the
beginning of the examination session.
4. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
5. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet and make the correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheets are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER
(OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark appropriate entries/answers correctly. Special care should
be taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION, SERIAL No. and PGD-CET Roll No. accurately. The
correctness of entries has to be cross-checked by the invigilators. The candidate must sign on the Answer Sheet
and Question Booklet.

Determine ONE correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question.
All the candidates are instructed to carefully see in Question Booklet the Serial No. of MCQ and the
sequence of options A), B), C) and D) in the MCQ
while entering the answer in the Answer Sheet.
7. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this , for answering the particular question, with Black ink Ball point
pen only, in the OMR Answer Sheet. Candidate should completely darken one and the only one best response
(oval). Candidate should not use any other method for answering i.e. half circle, dot, tick mark, cross etc. as these
may not be read by the scanner. Answer Sheet of each candidate will be evaluated by computerized scanning
method only (Optical Mark Reader) and there will not be any manual checking during evaluation and verification.
8. Each answer with correct response shall be awarded one (1) mark. There is No Negative Marking. If the
examinee has marked two or more answers or has done scratching and/or overwriting in the Answer Sheet inresponse to any question, or has marked the circles inappropriately, mark(s) shall NOT be awarded for suchanswer/s.
9. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.
10. Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should not
be done on the Answer Sheet.
11. Confirm that both the candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet and answersheet. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet are to be returned to
the invigilator.

12. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the examination session is over.
__________________________________________________________________________ SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
1. Process in which the hardness of a metal increases during cold working is 4. At the age of nine years, the mandibular permanent first molar has its distal contact with which of the following teeth ? 5. The position of maximum intercuspation of upper and lower teeth is referred 6. The “Onset” of the disease in the history of present illness relates to 8. To study the malignant tumour of the jaw bone, the radio-nuclide used is D) Technitium 99m methylene diphosphate (MDP) 9. Sphygmomanometer reading can be correct only when A) deflation is 5-10 mm Hg per heart beat B) cuff is slightly full on applying to patient’s arm C) the cuff width is 25% of the diameter of the patient’s arm D) length of the bladder encircles 80% of the patient’s arm 10. Radiographic image sharpness is reduced when C) insufficient vertical angulation is used D) inappropriate horizontal angulation is used 11. Corrugated collagenous rings surrounding lymphocytes and plasma cells in the walls of inflammatory cysts are called 12. Blue sclerae may be seen in all types of osteogenesis imperfecta EXCEPT 13. A serious coagulopathy characterized by severe thrombocytopenia and haemorrhage due to platelet trapping within the tumor is called 14. In PRECEDE model of health education R stands for .
15. The fee level determined by the administrator of dental benefit plan is 16. Which of the following is an example of intraoral tracer ? 17. Which of the following measures the vertical dimension when the mandible and muscles involved are in physiologic function of speech ? 18. To achieve the additional retention the following should be done while tooth 19. Minimum solubility of dental cements to oral fluids is seen in 20. Eames technique is otherwise known as 21. The concept of field change or “Cancerization” was proposed by 22. Best parameter to monitor response to treatment in a patient of shock is 24. Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is 26. According to Stanford –Binet intelligence scale, the degree of mental disability 27. Which of the following is NOT a type of mixed dentition analysis? 28. Extra oral tracing method is grouped in the following for recording centric 29. When closure in intercuspal position is attained during mastication, movement stops for about ________ msec before another cycle begins.
30. Pontic design for anterior region should be of the following to give excellent 32. Invasive squamous cell carcinoma is differentiated from Carcinoma in situ by 34. Clostridium tetani are following type of bacteria 35. Common cause of diarrhoea in AIDS cases is due to 36. The mode of inheritance in hemophilia is .
37. A strong crescent shaped fold of duramater lying in the sagittal plane and occupying great longitudinal fissure between two cerebral hemispheres is 38. Brodmann’s area number 44 and 45 (Broca’s area) is located on 39. Which one of the following structures develops from all the three germ layers ? 40. Which cells clean the ultrafilter of renal corpuscle ? 41. Which of the following statements is correct about lingual nerve ? B) It passes through para-pharyngeal space C) It passes through the pterygomandibular space D) The lingual nerve is the sensory tract to anterior one third of the tongue 42. Elephant foot deformity is indicative of B) Non union of fractured edentulous mandible D) Unilateral Le Fort I fracture of maxilla 43. Pyramidal fracture is another name for 44. The cyst that remains behind in the jaws after removal of the tooth is 45. Which of the following does NOT belong to amide group of local anesthetics ? 47. The amount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration is 48. Hemiplegia is produced when the corticospinal tract is damaged at the level of 49. Positive nitrogen balance is seen in .
50. Substrate for gluconeogenesis is .
51. Degeneration of periodontal tissue without inflammation is called as 52. Keratin specific to epidermal type differentiation are 53. Which of the following is NOT detected by Evalusite ? 54. Closed mouth technique of blocking the inferior alveolar, Buccinator and 56. Which agent is used in walking bleach technique ? 57. Osteoblast covering the periodontal surface of the alveolar bone constitute a 58. Brushlite crystals in calculus are found more commonly in 59. Healing of a wound which simply restores the continuity of the diseased 60. True about Papillon Leferve Syndrome is B) Characterized by palmer planter hyperkeratosis 62. Which is an example of retainerless matrix ? 64. The acid used in etching ceramic during repair of ceramic restorations is 65. The configuration factor [“C” factor] for an occlusal class I cavity is 66. The Antiviral drug recommended for treatment of Herpes Zoster infection of trigeminal nerve distribution in an immunocompromised host is 67. Which of the following patient require Vit B12 supplementation ? B) Patient with normal B level having dementia C) Patient with elevated Homocystein level 68. Which of the most appropriate cause of urinary stone formation ? 69. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of sepsis ? 70. The following clinical presentation qualify for the term “Severe Falciparum 72. Premature bone loss in primary teeth could be seen in condition like 73. Which of the following may develop as a result of juvenile diabetes mellitus ? 74. Four film Survey (Series) for children consists of maxillary and mandibular D) one panoramic & one lateral jaw views 75. The isthmus width in class II cavity preparation in relation to intercuspal width of 76. Benzodiazepines act preferentially on which part of the brain to block thought 77. The pathological state that alters the volume of distribution of many drugs is 78. Which of the following analgesic is used in arthritis, having 3 times more concentration in synovial fluid than plasma ? 79. The antiulcer agent detaches and kills H. Pylori organism and prevents relapses is 80. The dentin desensitizing agents that acts by precipitating proteins in dentinal 81. Longer the duration of the disease, the greater is its 82. _______ survey includes only the most important subgroups in the population 83. The Index of Orthodontic Treatment Needs (I.O.T.N.) was developed by _________ to link dentofacial variation to perceived aesthetic impairment.
84. Vitamin “D” is derived by radiation of the naturally occurring substance .
85. The growth in three dimensions get completed in which order ? 87. The incisal edge of maxillary central incisor in a 21 year old man is chipped off during a fall. He is informed that the tooth will erupt a little. Thiscompensatory tooth movement is because of increased deposition of 88. Koilocytes are seen in all of the following EXCEPT 89. A typical example of an immunologically mediated collagen vascular/ 90. Pastia’s lines in Scarlet fever are A) white lines on the dorsum of the tongue C) present in skin folds secondary to capillary fragility D) seen when white and red strawberry tongue occur concomitantly 91. Which of the following is NOT a layer of primary growth cartilage ? 92. Early closure of suture is associated with 94. Rotational changes in the mandible essentially consist of A) Matrix rotation 25% & Intramatrix rotation 75% B) Matrix rotation 50% & Intramatrix rotation 50% C) Matrix rotation 100% & Intramatrix rotation 0% D) Matrix rotation 0% & Intramatrix rotation 100% 95. The maxillary intercanine dimension serves to control the mandibular growth, 96. The initiator in the heat cure polymer powder is 97. A dentist can best control the setting time of Alginate impression material 98. In acrylic restorative materials, the pumping action of alternately imbibing 99. Time dependent deformation produced in a completely set solid subjected to 100. An acidic agent that dissolves the inorganic structure in dentin that allows SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Source: http://www.dmer.org/PGD%202014/44.pdf

Material safety data sheet

MATERIAL SAFETY DATA SHEET Jin Gwang Industry Co.,Ltd “ConfiAd” Joint Adhesive, Component A & Component B 232-8 Maesan-ri Opo-eup, Gwangju-si, Gyeonggi-do,Korea 82-31-767-8441 2. COMPOSITION / INFORMATION ON INGREDIENTS 30~60% CAS Number : 80-62-6 EC Number : 201-297-1 REACH # : 05-2114088188-37-0000 (Pre-registration) CAS Number : 21645-51-2 EC Number : 244-492-7 : 05-211408

Microsoft word - september 12 2006 usac summary.doc

September 12, 2006 USAC Meeting Summary Submitted by Terri Weaver, 2006-2007 USAC Chair Thanks to all who have submitted suggestions/questions/concerns to the University Staff Advisory Committee. Please join us in our discussions by continuing to post messages through the staff advisory council website: (http://oncampus.richmond.edu/staff/usac/request.html) Members in Attendance: Eri

Copyright © 2010-2014 Medical Articles